West Columbia, TX Divorce Law Firms & Lawyers

There's obviously more to this story than you are sharing, but based upon what you have stated: If the car is in your name alone or in the name of "You or Spouse," then you are free to sell the car without her consent (that doesn't mean you should, but you can). The proceeds from the sale of the car are marital funds if the car was purchased during the marriage with marital funds or if the car was titled in your name and hers. Either way, she is not entitled to the car, but will likely be entitled to half the proceeds of sale.

If you want to try to hold the proceeding down here in Texas, you need to see a lawyer ASAP. For now Texas still has jurisdiction over the child and the case. Good luck.

That is a complicated question.  The State of Texas operates under a community property presumption, which means that anything purchased during the marriage is presumed to be community property unless proven otherwise by a party.  It wouldn't matter whether your husband put the property only in his name or in both of your names because the fact that it was purchased during marriage would imply that it is community property.  If your husband has separate assets and purchases the home with those separate assets and he can prove those facts, then it would be beneficial for you to have the home in your name as well for a variety of reasons that are too numerous to list here.  The Court will divide all community property equitably, which may mean half and half, or it may mean something different.  The first question will be whether the home is community property, then, if it is community, the Court will determine how to equitably divide the house and all the other assets.